As I pointed out in the paragraph I quoted, after 1924, German companies were flush with loans freely offered by private lenders in the US, the UK and France, which were in excess of reparations payments. This cannot be denied. It cannot be denied that these loans were withdrawn in 1929, and began an economic meltdown. Hitler was elected four years later.

We’re not arguing that. The point is that the withdrawal of a loan is not a “failure of or excess of capitalism”. You’ll recall that your original point was that the excesses of capitalism lead inexorably to fascism or communism; I raised this as a datapoint (and a nontrivial one) showing that not to be the case, that in Germany (and Cuba, and the USSR) the cause of fascism/communism was not an excess of failure of capitalism.

You seem to be granting me the point.

Without saying “alliance” and “assassination” explain the First World War to me, give me its root causes. I’ll bet you can’t.

I’m not into social history; I look at economic history rather exclusively. So, my general “take” is that that the roots of the WW1 conflict started with Germany’s rapid industrialization that England and Russia viewed as a threat (in particular Germany’s naval capabilities) along with Austro-Hungary was weakening fast and creating a vacuum of power. The assassination was just a tipping point.

What’s that got to do with anything?

Data Driven Econophile. Muslim, USA born. Been “woke” 2x: 1st, when I realized the world isn’t fair; 2nd, when I realized the “woke” people are full of shit.

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